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Whats the rule that makes "please" pronounced the same as "pleas"?

Last Updated: 19.06.2025 18:29

Whats the rule that makes "please" pronounced the same as "pleas"?

What's (not “whats”) the rule?

Please is an anglicization of the French word plaisir.

You'll usually find your answer there.

Why do people keep complaining about how some people copy and paste the question before answering it? To me, it's very disturbing and makes me want to block and mute them as annoying whiners.

While you may reasonably ask why words are spelled the way they're spelled, it makes no sense to ask why they're pronounced the way they're pronounced.

Words are pronounced the way that they're pronounced.

Whence the <ea> I cannot say but some other words that were spelled <ai> in French are spelled <ea> in English: aise → ease, graisse → grease, fait → feat.

Can you recommend a simple song with an awesome solo? What makes the solo stand out?

Pleas is spelled <pleas> because it's the plural of pleas.

If you're curious about why a word is spelled the way it's spelled, your first recourse should be etymonline dot com.

There's no rule.

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Back in the day (circa 1300), it was written <plesen>.